I never understood this.
When the car was purchased first-hand, wasn't a tax paid to the gubmint?
So when the gubmint aims to tax an item for which a tax has already been paid, doesn't this constitute a double-taxation?
I propose the gubmint pay the original owner a present-day-value reimbursement of the tax paid originally, at the time the owner transfers the item to another party, who will be forced to pay a tax for it.
Why do you pay taxes (the full value of the car) when you lease a vehicle?
I like that line of reasoning.
the governments appetite for taxes is endless. We are a Republic no more. We have morphed into a dying Socialist hell where the individual means nothing, limited government is a joke and everyone must worship at the alter of the State. If the US is this bad, I can only imagine how bad much of the rest of the world must be. I wonder how many Republicans in Texas voted for this? It seems that in Texas and most other states its, Republicans = Democrats = high taxes.
The tax they want now if for the full sales price at present. Ever since Texas began taxing used auto sales between individuals, most people lied about what the selling price was. If the used auto sold for $10,000. the buyer and seller lied about the amount and and the sales tax paid was a fraction of the actual price.
In Texas and I would guess almost everywhere, you pay sales tax on taxes. Examples: Cigarettes and Alcohol. both have state and federal taxes and when you buy them you pay a sales tax on those taxes also.