If foreknowledge is not necessarily causative, then why use it to accuse your "alleged maker" of a mistake?
"If foreknowledge is not necessarily causative, then why use it to accuse your "alleged maker" of a mistake?"
1) The *as far as I know* was from me saying *as far as I know, you aren't omniscient*. Your quoting it here is moronic.
2) The omniscience that is attributed to God would also mean that He knew what people would do when He created them. In this case, according to the story, God IS the cause of our nature, and the one who is culpable for our transgressions, since he knew what we would do before he created us.