Why does the liability fall on the property owner? Is this not a result of actions by the state (judicial and legislative)?
Therefore, if state action (placing all liability on the property owner) is the reason for banning guns, is this not a de facto infringement on the 2nd amendment by the state?
Come on man, you can't be this thick and actually believe yourself a conservative.
If I fall down on your drive way, you are liable for my injuries. If I am attacked on your property, you are liable for my injuries.
The reason for "banning" guns is that the property owner has the right AS A PROPERTY OWNER to set rules and conditions for your access and continued presence in his property.