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To: ancient_geezer
If government gets the same amount of money as it would under the tax law it replaced, the economy gets the same as it would as well. That is revenue neutral and economically equivalent.

You seem to be caught in static analysis. You cannot see that reducing property tax and increasing sales tax will affect the decisions of economic participants.

A flat income tax and a sales tax will certainly change the behaviors of economic participants over today's income and wealth tax. But in steady state, a flat income tax and a sales tax will affect economic participants in the same exact manner. The only difference is that a sales tax has destructive consequences at transition due to the necessary increase in money supply.

14 posted on 12/16/2005 2:54:33 PM PST by SolidSupplySide
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To: SolidSupplySide

You seem to be caught in static analysis. You cannot see that reducing property tax and increasing sales tax will affect the decisions of economic participants.

You misread the statement my friend.

If government gets the same amount of money under one tax law as it would under another tax law, that is economically equivalent.

For a given set of conditions if both systems return the equivalent revenues, they will do so in a dynamic sense as well.

By the way, what you are overlooking is the impact of decisions made by economic participants in the choices of investing vs spending. Today we are on the path of disaster where net savings is rapidly headed for a net debt scenario, a bubble economy looking to implode.

 

Savings

 

It is time to reverse that trend.

The only difference is that a sales tax has destructive consequences at transition due to the necessary increase in money supply.

That is foolishness. Since government takes no more from the money supply under the FairTax, than it would under an equivalent "Flat Tax" or even the income/payroll tax. After all, they all are supposed to be equivalent taxes according, at least to Flat Tax authors, your presumed necessary increase in money supply has no basis. The same money is available for expenditure on goods, services and investment in both cases. No adjustment is necessary.

21 posted on 12/16/2005 3:23:13 PM PST by ancient_geezer (Don't reform it, Replace it!!)
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