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Ah, yes. But I seem to recall the existence of a bible verse that refers to the "four corners" of the Earth. Was the Bible right there, too???

I would think that this part of the Bible was written in poetic form, but without chapter and verse I can't say for sure. As I said in my last post, there are linguists much more knowledgeable than I that can explain it better. A google search would probably turn these items up.

"I would think that this part of the Bible was written in poetic form, but without chapter and verse I can't say for sure."

So, if it's in "poetic form" then the Bible doesn't have to be "literally accurate"??

How about when Jesus uses parables?? Are THOSE supposed to be taken as "literally accurate" too??

Sorry, you lose your case---the Bible in MANY cases uses "figurative language". The literalist idea is simply ridiculous. Both Judasism and Christianity have ALWAYS used figurative language in many places.