The MSM keeps referring to "youths," but fails to point out that there are no females involved.
There is a gender gap. Why?!
France's massive riots back in 1968 had many, perhaps even mostly, women rioters.
Today it's an all male affair...something that punches a big hole in the "oppressed minorities" theory and sinks the "unemployed rioters" theory (no females are oppressed or unemployed today compared to 1968?!).
So part of the news story isn't being told by the MSM. Why the difference today in gender participation from that of 1968?