Posted on 11/03/2005 2:24:08 PM PST by inquest
There's a new poll up on the side. Do you think the interstate commerce clause of the Constitution authorizes federal laws against narcotics and firearms? Now lest everyone forget, this isn't asking whether you personally agree with such laws. It's about whether your honest reading of the Constitution can justify them.
While you're thinking it over, it might help to reflect on what James Madison had to say about federal power over interstate commerce:
Being in the same terms with the power over foreign commerce, the same extent, if taken literally, would belong to it. Yet it is very certain that it grew out of the abuse of the power by the importing States in taxing the non-importing, and was intended as a negative and preventive provision against injustice among the States themselves, rather than as a power to be used for the positive purposes of the General Government, in which alone, however, the remedial power could be lodged.I'll be looking forward to your comments.
It is a local matter -- and also a federal matter under the commerce clause.
No state can claim an exemption from federal law unless that law is otherwise void; and, in exercise of federal commerce clause power, Congress can and did properly find that the cultivation and sale of marijuana must be suppressed comprehensively. There is no "backyard sale" exemption for marijuana.
As for firearms, we have the Second Amendment as a direct limitation on Congressional power. Congress still has a limited power to regulate the trade in firearms, but not so as to violate the right to keep and bear arms.
>>>>A dubious claim at best ...
Then you take a legal run at it and we'll see how far you get.
I cite Justice Scalia's concurring in the judgment of AG Gonzales v Raich, of June.6,2005.
"I agree with the Court's holding that the Controlled Substances Act (CSA) may validly be applied to respondents' cultivation, distribution, and possession of marijuana for personal, medicinal use."
"Since Perez v. United States, 402 U. S. 146 (1971), our cases have mechanically recited that the Commerce Clause permits congressional regulation of three categories: (1) the channels of interstate commerce; (2) the instrumentalities of interstate commerce, and persons or things in interstate commerce; and (3) activities that "substantially affect" interstate commerce.
James Madison in Federalist No. 45:
"The powers delegated by the proposed Constitution to the federal government are few and defined. Those which are to remain in the State governments are numerous and indefinite."
Madison on the original intent of the power to regulate comerce among the several States:
"Yet it is very certain that it grew out of the abuse of the power by the importing States in taxing the non-importing, and was intended as a negative and preventive provision against injustice among the States themselves, rather than as a power to be used for the positive purposes of the General Government,"
http://press-pubs.uchicago.edu/founders/documents/a1_8_3_commerces19.html
Not to mention it renders the debate moot.
Whats the point of having a debate about the intent of the writers of a docuement, when the very words of the document are 'disregarded'....or am I missing somthing?
Your reasoning is unpersuasive because other evidence is decisively to the contrary and the term used ("among the several states") was likely meant to avoid any implication that Congress could single out and regulate commerce in one state alone. In addition, the Framers' drafting and debate on the Constitution did not involve detailed consideration of the specific term of the commerce clause power.
My bad. In the case of narcotics, I would think that if someone buys and/or sells a large quantity of drugs without regard for where they came from or where they were going to, it would be hard to argue that one did not believe any of the drugs were likely to be involved in interstate commerce. On the other hand, if a guy who grows a few dozen plants sells one to another guy who has a script from an in-state doctor, I think the person could reasonably argue that he had no reason to believe interstate commerce with that plant was even remotely likely.
The question should be what the jury finds plausible.
Why would you say that? I agree that the power of Congress under I.8.3., where it properly applies, is the remedial power and it is supreme. Now, you completely ignored Mr. Madison on this point:
"rather than as a power to be used for the positive purposes of the General Government",
Do you think the "substantial effects" test from Wickard is consistent with the original intent of the Commerce Clause-- yes or no?
Being in the same terms with the power over foreign commerce, the same extent, if taken literally, would belong to it.
You do agree that he was making a distinction between the power to regulate foreign versus interstate commerce? (See Madison's first letter to Cabell re foreign nations).
Since the wording is the same, the extent of each power would be the same if they were taken literally. Madison is saying that such reasoning is specious and unsound.
Madison apparently always saw the federal powers over foreign commerce and over commerce among the states as coextensive and comprehensive. His reference to "specious and unsound" is to many of the arguments and issues that he feared would arise out of the federal power to regulate trade if the Constitution had complicated provisions and explanations on the matter.
In this, Madison was restating a central premise of the Framers that brevity in a Constitution is the ally of clarity and comprehension. The late rejected European Constitution and the British "unwritten" Constitution represent an opposite preference for detail, at the price of obscuring principles and undermining popular understanding.
The expansive view of the Constitution that underlies the New Deal is contrary to original intent, but the cases that established it are settled law. --post #53
Of course, if scoundrels and fools are at the helm, even a properly ballasted and keeled ship can be wrecked -- which is what the New Deal and its judicial accomplices did to the Constitution.-- post #113
Madison was saying the two powers were not coextensive:
"Being in the same terms with the power over foreign commerce, the same extent, if taken literally, would belong to it."
You have taken it literally, and Madison says that is unsound.
The point of a Constitution is that it is supposed to be taken literally; and Madison concluded that the remedy for excessive use of the federal commerce power was, in effect, Congress.
The larger issue is what Madison would make of today's use of the federal commerce clause. I think that most of it he would see as commendable or at least debatable, much of it profoundly unwise and wrong, but I do not think Madison would call the current application of the commerce clause unconstitutional. As to what he disapproved of, Madison would mostly wonder what had happened to Congress and the people.
Such as the Great Society and various gun bans.
There was a reasonable basis for those doctrines based on American history and faithfulness to the limited government envisioned by the Framers, but the doctrines are not well-grounded in the express terms of the Constitution.
Then the scoundrels and fools in the New Deal era made a wreck of the Constitution, according to you. I believe you applied those terms to judicial accomplices in favor of Wickard.
Read the whole thread ... it's depressing how many people disagree and yet consider themselves "conservative."
Look at the poll and you'll see that the vast majority of people understand the plain meaning of the commerce clause.
No
85.2%
Undecided/Pass
8.4%
Yes
6.5%
Most of the naysayers' arguments have irrational premises. If the founders meant for government to regulate (ie, control) commerce the U.S. would not have been a representative republic, It would have been fascism, socialism or communism. The word "regulate" in the founders days often meant "to make regular uniform". Thus identifies their original intent. .To make regular/uniform, not control. What percentage of the people posting on this thread have arguments based on irrational premise?
Assume a similar poll result from people educated about the commerce clause. Politicians live by hoodwinking their constituents to suit their own agenda, not representing them. That's why they're parasites.
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