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To: Double Tap
Yes, it is that simple. The constitution should be applied as written. The first word of the 1st Amendment is "Congress" as in Congress shall pass no laws. Not Congress and the state governments shall pass no laws.

The first Congress sent out 12 amendments to the states to ratify. One would have applied the BOR to the states. It was not ratified. One was for elections before pay raises. Only 10 were ratified, but then the 11th became the 27th amendment later on. So the first Congress also wrote the 27th Amendment.

In Barron v. Baltimore John Marshall told us what was obvious to all constitutional scholars: the BOR does not apply to the states. In my opinion nothing has happened in the time since to change that. However the Court does not care about my opinion, and it reads the DPC of the 14th to allow (require?) selective incorporation.

27 posted on 10/31/2005 9:57:50 AM PST by phelanw
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To: phelanw
Yes, it is that simple. The constitution should be applied as written. The first word of the 1st Amendment is "Congress" as in Congress shall pass no laws. Not Congress and the state governments shall pass no laws.

Yep, sure does. Do you want to tell me what it says in the other nine?

The first Congress sent out 12 amendments to the states to ratify. One would have applied the BOR to the states. It was not ratified.

You want to back that up with proof?

In Barron v. Baltimore John Marshall told us what was obvious to all constitutional scholars: the BOR does not apply to the states.

Wouldn't be the first time a SC Justice was wrong.

30 posted on 10/31/2005 10:09:46 AM PST by Double Tap
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To: phelanw
The first word of the 1st Amendment is "Congress" as in Congress shall pass no laws.

Now read the text of the Second Amendment. No such restriction is there. Even during the revision process, they only made it more broad as they wanted an iron clad protection for such an important individual Right.

This itself should give the lie to the claim of self declared "constitutional scholars".

32 posted on 10/31/2005 10:14:12 AM PST by Dead Corpse (Anyone who needs to be persuaded to be free, doesn't deserve to be. -El Neil)
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To: phelanw

If something is a "right", then no level of government can legitimately infringe on it.


34 posted on 10/31/2005 10:26:26 AM PST by Sloth (You being wrong & me being closed-minded are not the same thing, nor are they mutually exclusive.)
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To: phelanw
The first Congress sent out 12 amendments to the states to ratify. One would have applied the BOR to the states. It was not ratified.

The complete text of the only non-ratified amendment in the original twelve appears below. Kindly point out the section that supports your assertion:

After the first enumeration required by the first article of the Constitution, there shall be one representative for every thirty thousand, until the number shall amount to one hundred, after which the proportion shall be so regulated by Congress, that there shall be not less than one hundred representatives, nor less than one representative for every forty thousand persons, until the number of representatives shall amount to two hundred; after which the proportion shall be so regulated by Congress, that there shall be not less than two hundred representatives, nor more than one representative for every fifty thousand persons.

51 posted on 10/31/2005 10:57:54 AM PST by steve-b (A desire not to butt into other people's business is eighty percent of all human wisdom)
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To: phelanw

Marshalls's opinion not withstanding, it seems silly to suggest that the rights of the Citizens of The United States can be infringed by any of the several states.


70 posted on 10/31/2005 12:03:08 PM PST by 45Auto (Big holes are (almost) always better.)
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