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To: gpapa
So, how does the Catholic church reconcile this verse?

1Ti 3:2 A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife, vigilant, sober, of good behaviour, given to hospitality, apt to teach;

As I understand it, the Eastern Orthodox church requires priests to be married because of this particular passage. I'm not trying to be iireverent here, I genuinely want to know how they reconcile their position.

26 posted on 10/22/2005 7:28:47 PM PDT by ovrtaxt (You nonconformists are all the same.)
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To: ovrtaxt

The Eastern Church allows deacons and priests to be married before ordination. Eastern Bishops may not be married before ordination. None may be married after ordination.

The Western or Roman Catholic Church only allows deacons to be married before ordination, but not afterward.

The Roman Catholic Church also recognizes Eastern Church ordinations as valid.


31 posted on 10/22/2005 8:54:31 PM PDT by gpapa (Boost FR Traffic! Make FR your home page!)
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To: ovrtaxt
As I understand it, the Eastern Orthodox church requires priests to be married because of this particular passage.

Not true. And interestingly enough, the Orthodox Church for the most part (I'm not clear if it's uniform) does *not* appoint married men to be bishops.
88 posted on 10/23/2005 1:54:01 PM PDT by Conservative til I die
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