[Conservative til I die]

As I understand it, the Eastern Orthodox church requires priests to be married because of this particular passage.

Not true. And interestingly enough, the Orthodox Church for the most part (I'm not clear if it's uniform) does *not* appoint married men to be bishops.

[ovrtaxt]

My mistake. Still, the verse stands. How is that reconciled by the church? (Perhaps they take it as a prohibition on polygamy?)