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To: penelopesire

You are arguing with me because of your extreme ignorance of the Moghul Era, when Indian notables spoke Farsi.


21 posted on 09/17/2005 9:17:05 PM PDT by Lejes Rimul (Paleo and Proud)
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To: Lejes Rimul

and u r arguing with me due to your 'extreme' ignorance of India,the history,the language, the religion. Even though I have slapped u down three or four times..u still persist...lol. AS General Honore might say: Are You Stuck on Stupid? Now u have changed the whole premise of your argument by implying we were arguing over Indian 'notables' in history that spoke Farsi...lol..I am telling U..that INDIAN 'ELITES' NEVER SPOKE FARSI..THEY SPEAK HINDU..A DERIVATIVE OF SANSKRIT..handen down by the Aryan 'invaders'. U are stuck on the stupid on stupid and the Moghul 'invasion' which came a century or so after.


22 posted on 09/17/2005 9:25:31 PM PDT by penelopesire
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To: Lejes Rimul
Indian elites during the Mughal era spoke Urdu, which is a mix of Hindi, Arabic/Islamic influenced Persian(thus, not Farsi), Arabic, and Turkic. Mughal empire had impact on the Muslims of India than on Hindus.

Most Muslim elites of India are Mughal descendents(and ethnically Afghanis) and have surname like Khan. Hindu elites, on the otherhand, are Aryan descendents.

Interestingly, both have the genetic marker R1a, which is found in India, Central Asia, and in Black Sea countries like Urkraine and Poland. Vikings and Norsemen also bore that marker.

Kurgan hypothesis says that IndoEuropeans migrated from their homeland around the Black Sea to south to Iran and India(Aryans). They would also migrate to west to become Greeks and Italic tribes. Later, they migrated to North and West to become Vikings and Norsemen, and so on. Well, that is the mainstream stuff.

27 posted on 09/17/2005 9:58:22 PM PDT by sagar (Straight trees are cut first and honest people are screwed first_ Chanakya, 4th c. BC)
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