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Kansas radiator plant closing (More jobs lost to NAFTA)
The Centre Daily Times ^ | Mon, Jul. 25, 2005 | Associated Press

Posted on 07/26/2005 11:37:26 AM PDT by Willie Green

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To: mysterio

""NAFTA has killed our manufacturing economy. If people weren't so apathetical and uninformed, they would certainly demand its repeal.""


Manufacturing in the USA has been in decline since it peaked in 1978. Believe it or not every country in the world is seeing declines in manufacturing jobs.

The idea that Mexico killed US manufacturing is ridiculous


41 posted on 07/26/2005 4:21:19 PM PDT by atlanta67
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To: atlanta67
I beg to disagree with you. China is producing more and more She intends to be the manufacturing country of the world. She has a HUGE trade surplus. We have a HUGE trade deficit. Like maybe over 700 billion dollars?

Just think, that is a lot of money circulating around the world that has left our shores.

The companies here are moving their factories overseas and their bottom lines go up, the stock market moves slowly up and the financial pundits continue to tell us our economy is so good.

China is now building up her military with all this money that we send her because of the cheap goods she sends us.

We didn't have trade deficits with,Japan and USSR, so there is no comparison. We made USSR spend and spend,
we helped Japan create a good economy.

Our largest trade deficits are with China, Japan, Canada and Mexico. Our good friends and allies? I don't think so.
42 posted on 07/26/2005 6:31:11 PM PDT by frannie (Be not afraid of tomorrow - God is already there!)
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To: frannie; atlanta67
She has a HUGE trade surplus.

Actually, China's net surplus last year was small. About $30 billion.

43 posted on 07/26/2005 6:55:16 PM PDT by Toddsterpatriot (If you agree with Marx, the AFL-CIO and E.P.I. please stop calling yourself a conservative!!)
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To: frannie
"We didn't have trade deficits with,Japan and USSR, so there is no comparison.

Let's talk a look at these claims, shall we?

1. USSR - For all intents and purposes, we didn't have trade deficits with the USSR because there was no trade... ( except a little wheat, now and again)

Now there - that part was easy, wasn't it?

2. Japan. [The U.S.]...didn't have trade deficits with Japan...

Uhm, When?

Say, 20 or 25 years ago, maybe? "Historically, Japan has had trade deficits with raw material suppliers and surpluses with other countries. In the 1980s, however, balances with all trading partners shifted somewhat in Japan's favor. Its surplus in trade with developed countries rose from US$12 billion in 1980 to US$67 billion by 1988, before declining to under US$51 billion in 1990.

http://www.photius.com/countries/japan/economy/japan_economy_trade_and_investment~411.html

Sir, I can only say, that I believe you to be more passionate than well-informed.

44 posted on 07/26/2005 8:41:15 PM PDT by lOKKI (You can ignore reality until it bites you in the ass.)
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To: Toddsterpatriot

What's with the swoon starting in 2000? I thought it was supposed to be a dot com bubble, not a manufacturing bubble.

45 posted on 07/26/2005 8:52:24 PM PDT by Moonman62 (Federal creed: If it moves tax it. If it keeps moving regulate it. If it stops moving subsidize it)
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To: RckyRaCoCo

I'm unfamiliar with that company. Sorry I can't answer your question.


46 posted on 07/27/2005 6:41:01 AM PDT by Sunshine Sister
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To: Clemenza

Quote: Then get in your car and drive away from your dying town.

Not easily done especially of you are older or taking care of sick parents.

Also hard to sell your house if everyone else is trying to sell theirs also because they are in the same boat.

When I was younger Imoved around the country without abandon. It would be mnucha harder for me to do so nowdays.


47 posted on 07/27/2005 7:53:41 AM PDT by superiorslots (Free Traitors are communist China's modern day "Useful Idiots")
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To: Moonman62
What's with the swoon starting in 2000? I thought it was supposed to be a dot com bubble, not a manufacturing bubble.

When the bubble burst companies didn't need new telecom equipment.Also, all the pre-Millenium computer buying meant less demand after 2000 started.

48 posted on 07/27/2005 9:03:35 AM PDT by Toddsterpatriot (If you agree with Marx, the AFL-CIO and E.P.I. please stop calling yourself a conservative!!)
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To: Toddsterpatriot

Right, Y2K had a whole lot to do with the boom and bust. Why didn't Greenspan know that? He inverted the yield curve anyway. Such are the perils of a managed economy.


49 posted on 07/27/2005 9:14:11 AM PDT by Moonman62 (Federal creed: If it moves tax it. If it keeps moving regulate it. If it stops moving subsidize it)
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To: Moonman62
Right, Y2K had a whole lot to do with the boom and bust. Why didn't Greenspan know that? He inverted the yield curve anyway. Such are the perils of a managed economy.

It was his fault!! He pumped too much $$$ into the system because he feared Y2K computer issues would cripple bank computers, ATMs etc and then when nothing happened, he pulled the excess money out too quickly.

50 posted on 07/27/2005 9:29:19 AM PDT by Toddsterpatriot (If you agree with Marx, the AFL-CIO and E.P.I. please stop calling yourself a conservative!!)
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To: Toddsterpatriot
Well, I know about the Special Liquidity Facility, which was announced in October of 1999, and coincided with the start of the last blowoff in the stock market (what I consider the true bubble). But from what I understand the SLF was never used. It was there in case of problems, which never happened. I had always assumed that it was the mere existence of the SLF which made everyone so giddy.

How else did money get into the system? Did it show up in the funds rate? We were still in a strong dollar policy, which isn't associated with easy money. My guess is a lot of overseas money came here as part of the "safe haven" effect.

51 posted on 07/27/2005 9:59:30 AM PDT by Moonman62 (Federal creed: If it moves tax it. If it keeps moving regulate it. If it stops moving subsidize it)
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To: Moonman62
How else did money get into the system? Did it show up in the funds rate? We were still in a strong dollar policy, which isn't associated with easy money. My guess is a lot of overseas money came here as part of the "safe haven" effect.

The Fed creates money by buying Treasuries from banks. The banks then have to lend out this new money. It probably wouldn't show up in the funds rate, although they could have dropped the funds rate too. I don't recall. Safe haven could have played a part too, but most was Greenspan.

52 posted on 07/27/2005 10:13:50 AM PDT by Toddsterpatriot (If you agree with Marx, the AFL-CIO and E.P.I. please stop calling yourself a conservative!!)
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To: Toddsterpatriot

The funds rate is a target. Buying and selling securities (all Treasuries in practice) with money center banks is how the Fed tries to influence the funds market to attain the target, which is rarely exact but usually very close. The Fed has a list of the actual daily funds rate somewhere on its site. I looked at that list some time ago and saw nothing unusual, so I have no other explanation than a flood of overseas money, but I'm always open to new explanations that don't start and end with "it was a dot-bomb scam" from people who watch too much TV.


53 posted on 07/27/2005 10:29:12 AM PDT by Moonman62 (Federal creed: If it moves tax it. If it keeps moving regulate it. If it stops moving subsidize it)
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To: Moonman62
The funds rate is a target.

Yes it is.

Buying and selling securities (all Treasuries in practice) with money center banks is how the Fed tries to influence the funds market to attain the target, which is rarely exact but usually very close.

Actually, they use repos and reverse repos to influence the Fed Funds rate. To increase the money supply they buy treasuries and keep them in their portfolio. They increase the balance the selling bank has on deposit at the Fed. The banks earn no interest on these deposits and so have an incentive to quickly take that money and loan it out. If the reserve requirement is 10% and the Fed buys $1 million in treasuries, that will increase the money supply a maximum of $10 million dollars.

So, before the Millennium the Fed bought a lot more treasuries than it normally would have and boosted the money supply. After Jan 1st, they sold some of those treasuries and reduced the money supply. They created too much and helped feed the tech bubble and then shrank the money supply too quickly and helped cause the pop.

Reserve Requirements

54 posted on 07/27/2005 2:18:00 PM PDT by Toddsterpatriot (If you agree with Marx, the AFL-CIO and E.P.I. please stop calling yourself a conservative!!)
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To: Toddsterpatriot
The banks earn no interest on these deposits and so have an incentive to quickly take that money and loan it out.

Right, and when the banks lend and borrow that money according to their reserve requirement, they are doing it in the Fed's fund market. Thus when the Fed does their trading in repurchase agreements it will affect the funds rate. The funds rate stayed on target. If the Fed adjusted the money supply, it must have done it some other way.

55 posted on 07/27/2005 7:08:57 PM PDT by Moonman62 (Federal creed: If it moves tax it. If it keeps moving regulate it. If it stops moving subsidize it)
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To: Moonman62
Right, and when the banks lend and borrow that money according to their reserve requirement, they are doing it in the Fed's fund market.

No, no, no. You're getting these mixed up. When the banks get this "new money" from the Fed they lend it out anyway they want. Fed Funds are overnight money. At the end of the day, banks see if they need a few bucks to meet their reserve requirement or if they have a few bucks extra. If so, they use Fed Funds. But if a bank gets $1 million in cash they'd like to make more than the 3.25% Fed funds rate. They'd prefer to make a home equity loan at 7% or make a prime business loan at 6.25%

Thus when the Fed does their trading in repurchase agreements it will affect the funds rate. The funds rate stayed on target. If the Fed adjusted the money supply, it must have done it some other way.

The Fed plays with the money supply by buying and selling treasuries. The Fed plays with the funds rate by doing overnight repos. Totally separate functions.

56 posted on 07/27/2005 7:29:05 PM PDT by Toddsterpatriot (If you agree with Marx, the AFL-CIO and E.P.I. please stop calling yourself a conservative!!)
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To: Toddsterpatriot
According to the Federal Reserve, the function of targeting the funds rate and adjusting the money supply is one and the same.

Open market operations--purchases and sales of U.S. Treasury and federal agency securities--are the Federal Reserve's principal tool for implementing monetary policy. The short-term objective for open market operations is specified by the Federal Open Market Committee (FOMC). This objective can be a desired quantity of reserves or a desired price (the federal funds rate). The federal funds rate is the interest rate at which depository institutions lend balances at the Federal Reserve to other depository institutions overnight.

The Federal Reserve's objective for open market operations has varied over the years. During the 1980s, the focus gradually shifted toward attaining a specified level of the federal funds rate, a process that was largely complete by the end of the decade. Beginning in 1994, the FOMC began announcing changes in its policy stance, and in 1995 it began to explicitly state its target level for the federal funds rate. Since February 2000, the statement issued by the FOMC shortly after each of its meetings usually has included the Committee's assessment of the risks to the attainment of its long-run goals of price stability and sustainable economic growth.

Link.
57 posted on 07/27/2005 8:45:52 PM PDT by Moonman62 (Federal creed: If it moves tax it. If it keeps moving regulate it. If it stops moving subsidize it)
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To: Moonman62
Federal Reserve policy is the most important determinant of the money supply. The Federal Reserve affects the money supply by affecting its most important component, bank deposits.

Here's how it works. The Federal Reserve requires commercial banks and other financial institutions to hold as reserves a fraction of the deposits they accept. Banks hold these reserves either as cash in their vaults or as deposits at Federal Reserve banks. In turn, the Federal Reserve controls reserves by lending money to banks and changing the "Federal Reserve discount rate" on these loans and by "open-market operations." The Federal Reserve uses open-market operations to either increase or decrease reserves. To increase reserves, the Federal Reserve buys U.S. Treasury securities by writing a check drawn on itself. The seller of the Treasury security deposits the check in a bank, increasing the seller's deposit. The bank, in turn, deposits the Federal Reserve check at its district Federal Reserve bank, thus increasing its reserves. The opposite sequence occurs when the Federal Reserve sells Treasury securities: the purchaser's deposits fall and, in turn, the bank's reserves fall.

What Is the Money Supply?

58 posted on 07/27/2005 9:49:42 PM PDT by Toddsterpatriot (If you agree with Marx, the AFL-CIO and E.P.I. please stop calling yourself a conservative!!)
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To: Moral Hazard
"Logging on to Monster.com, setting up an account, creating a resume, searching the job listings and applying for jobs is not substantially more difficult than logging on to freerepublic.com, creating an account and searching through the news listings for something interesting to post on.

You really don't know what your talking about. LOL But I'm sure you think you do. Are you a salesman by the way? Post a resume and they will come? Hummmmm
59 posted on 07/27/2005 10:00:15 PM PDT by WHBates
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To: Toddsterpatriot
"It was his fault!! He pumped too much $$$ into the system because he feared Y2K computer issues would cripple bank computers, ATMs etc and then when nothing happened, he pulled the excess money out too quickly.

The question is why he thought this to begin with? He was an insider on the outside. So much for a big brain.
60 posted on 07/27/2005 10:07:12 PM PDT by WHBates
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