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To: justshutupandtakeit

"no one was discussing allowing Slaves to VOTE these were extra seats in the House allocated to Slave states by counting the slaves as people even though they weren't TREATED as people."

So, it was not idealistic anti-slavery sentiment that was driving the "free" states' support of slaves in the south being considered 3/5 human, for the purpose of apportionment. Congratulations, we agree on something.


485 posted on 06/14/2005 1:17:04 PM PDT by RegulatorCountry (Esse Quam Videre)
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To: RegulatorCountry
You are somewhat confused. At the time of the Constitutional Convention there were only two states which had outlawed slavery so there was no conflict between Free states and Slave states as later came to be.

States without significant numbers of slaves did not what to see more power go to the states which did have significant numbers BUT they could not deny that there were people there which had to be addressed. It had nothing to do with being anti-slavery or pro-slavery but only with the allocation of political power.
489 posted on 06/14/2005 1:27:24 PM PDT by justshutupandtakeit (Public Enemy #1, the RATmedia.)
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