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To: RegulatorCountry
You are somewhat confused. At the time of the Constitutional Convention there were only two states which had outlawed slavery so there was no conflict between Free states and Slave states as later came to be.

States without significant numbers of slaves did not what to see more power go to the states which did have significant numbers BUT they could not deny that there were people there which had to be addressed. It had nothing to do with being anti-slavery or pro-slavery but only with the allocation of political power.
489 posted on 06/14/2005 1:27:24 PM PDT by justshutupandtakeit (Public Enemy #1, the RATmedia.)
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To: justshutupandtakeit

"It had nothing to do with being anti-slavery or pro-slavery but only with the allocation of political power."

Interesting evasion, in light of just how this "3/5 human" decision has come to be interpreted. Typically, it is and has been attributed to racist southerners, which could not be further from the truth.


508 posted on 06/14/2005 1:43:31 PM PDT by RegulatorCountry (Esse Quam Videre)
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