I might be able to see the difference if anyone were able to provide a rationale for it. Given the number of times I have asked for one, and the total absence of an explanation, Ockham's Razor leads me to believe that there isn't any.
Really, what's to stop a libertarian society from existing in the absence of a stifling social order? Why are not the values expressed in the Declaration of Independence and the Constitution not sufficient? Or do you consider those values to constitute a stifling social order?
Yes, that's the point.
A state is the product of its society and culture. It handles the problems that social convention cannot. It's strength at any given moment is the inverse of that of the civil society underneath it.
You have laws when ostracism and the raised eyebrow no longer work. Libertarianism's folly is thinking you can combine no cultural rules and no state rules. Human interaction needs rules. People will demand rules and they will choose state rules over cultural rules.