That is true, but the laws Congress' wishes to have the President enact, still cannot violate the Bill of Rights.
For example, according to your remark, the Congress has the power to "regulate" a newspaper. But Amendment I prohibits Congress from regulating the content of a newspaper.
I also would like to ask you the following question:
The "commerce clause" states:
" To regulate commerce with foreign nations, and among the several states, and with the Indian tribes"
When and how did a US business, owned privately by the citizens, become either a "foreign nation(s)" or one of "the several state(s)" or an "Indian tribe(s)?"
"When and how did a US business, owned privately by the citizens, become either a "foreign nation(s)" or one of "the several state(s)" or an "Indian tribe(s)?"
It's spelled out quite nicely here since the Constitution was written.
http://caselaw.lp.findlaw.com/data/constitution/article01/28.html
Original intent discussed here.
http://caselaw.lp.findlaw.com/data/constitution/article01/32.html