Tahiti wrote:
"When and how did a US business, owned privately by the citizens, become either a "foreign nation(s)" or one of "the several state(s)" or an "Indian tribe(s)?"
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It's spelled out quite nicely here since the Constitution was written.
http://caselaw.lp.findlaw.com/data/constitution/article01/28.html
Original intent discussed here.
http://caselaw.lp.findlaw.com/data/constitution/article01/32.html
It may be "spelled out nicely" but findlaws conclusion is nevertheless faulty reasoning, as it's writer inadvertently admits, here:
"The power has been exercised to enforce majority conceptions of morality, to ban racial discrimination in public accommodations, and to protect the public against evils both natural and contrived by people. The power to regulate interstate commerce is, therefore, rightly regarded as the most potent grant of authority in Sec. 8."
Yes indeed, -- "the power" has been exercised [read misused] to enforce "majority conceptions of morality" & to protect us from contrived "evil" -- in the past.
Not "rightly", but that is how it was used.
It is now time to stop such infringements of our individual rights of life, liberty & property. The commerce clause is being used to rule the USA by a 'democratic' tyranny of the majority.