Free Republic
Browse · Search
News/Activism
Topics · Post Article

To: Always Right
Point #1. First the Fair Tax Act of 2005 Bill Clearly says the PURCHASER is LIABLE for the tax unless he has a Receipt, let's read:

`SEC. 101. IMPOSITION OF SALES TAX .

(d) Liability for Tax -

* `(1) IN GENERAL- The person using or consuming taxable property or services in the United States is liable for the tax imposed by this section, except as provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection.
* `(2) EXCEPTION WHERE TAX PAID TO SELLER- A person using or consuming a taxable property or service in the United States is not liable for the tax imposed by this section if the person pays the tax to a person selling the taxable property or service and receives from such person a purchaser's receipt within the meaning of section 510.

Do you disagree???? I should hope not.

Actually, your interpretation is severly flawed. You selectively highlight certain text, but completely gloss over the fact that the two are not related. Clause 2 specifically says the consumer is no longer liable for the tax once it is paid to the seller. This makes the rest of your screed pointless.

434 posted on 02/15/2005 2:04:51 PM PST by kevkrom (If people are free to do as they wish, they are almost certain not to do as Utopian planners wish)
[ Post Reply | Private Reply | To 433 | View Replies ]


To: kevkrom
Actually, your interpretation is severly flawed. You selectively highlight certain text, but completely gloss over the fact that the two are not related. Clause 2 specifically says the consumer is no longer liable for the tax once it is paid to the seller. This makes the rest of your screed pointless.

LOL. You are making no sense. I highlighted and explained every relevant point in percise detail. Individuals can be audited because they are liable and required to remit the tax. In order to show you are not liable for a tax you must produce a receipt if asked. Once you produce the receipt then you are no longer liable. But the NRST is not tax freedom for individuals. It is just as intrusive and vile as the current system.

435 posted on 02/15/2005 2:09:59 PM PST by Always Right
[ Post Reply | Private Reply | To 434 | View Replies ]

To: kevkrom
Clause 2 specifically says the consumer is no longer liable for the tax once it is paid to the seller.

I think you left out the part and "receives from such person a purchaser's receipt within the meaning of section 510." Who is the one selectively reading.....

436 posted on 02/15/2005 2:14:56 PM PST by Always Right
[ Post Reply | Private Reply | To 434 | View Replies ]

Free Republic
Browse · Search
News/Activism
Topics · Post Article


FreeRepublic, LLC, PO BOX 9771, FRESNO, CA 93794
FreeRepublic.com is powered by software copyright 2000-2008 John Robinson