Look at the Gospel of John, first chapter.In the beginning was Jesus, and Jesus was with God, and Jesus was God ...
The claims made in JOhn 1 are expressed precisely, and in fact state precisely the opposite of what you want them to say. John 1,1-3 do not talk about Jesus; they talk about the "Logos," which is the pre-existent reality that has the same divine nature as "the God" (ho Theos = God the Father) and that existed from all eternity in eternal directedness and relationality to "the God." Then, in JOhn 1,14, "logos sarx egeneto," that is, the pre-existent Logos became flesh, i.e., became a human being. And at that moment, Jesus' existence began.
I don't understand why this is so hard for people to follow.
The first chapter of John does not speak of "Jesus". It speaks of the second Person of the Trinity as the Word, eternally present with the Father, through whom all things were made. The Word became flesh at a specific moment in time. From this point onward, the Word has been both divine and human. Before the Incarnation, the Word was NOT human, had NO human name, No body, etc.
Jesus is fully divine and fully human, OK? His human and divine natures are inseparable, but this human nature came into being at the moment of his conception.
There was never a time when the Son did not exist. But there was certainly a time that Jesus did not exist. You cannot claim otherwise without calling the Incarnation a sham.