The claims made in JOhn 1 are expressed precisely, and in fact state precisely the opposite of what you want them to say. John 1,1-3 do not talk about Jesus; they talk about the "Logos," which is the pre-existent reality that has the same divine nature as "the God" (ho Theos = God the Father) and that existed from all eternity in eternal directedness and relationality to "the God." Then, in JOhn 1,14, "logos sarx egeneto," that is, the pre-existent Logos became flesh, i.e., became a human being. And at that moment, Jesus' existence began.
Wrong again!
Then what is the Christological nature of Jesus in your view?