The original intent of the Commerce Clause is irrelevant. It is irrelevant because it is not the sole intent of the Commerce Clause. The Commerce Clause was written to do a multitude of things.
Even Madison said the Commerce Clause may be used for the good of the country by taxing imports, thus encouraging local manufactures.
Now, what the heck does all that have to do with my question? There's no connection.
Now, if you find one, get back to me with a direct, to the point, succinct question, and I'll answer it. Until then, I'm gone.
That makes no sense whatsoever. The original intent is the intent of those who wrote it and ratified it. That is synonymous with "sole intent". Only those who write and ratify a document can impart to it intent of any description.