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To: Hillary's Lovely Legs
I believe that the 2nd Ammendment conveys a collective right to states, giving them the right to keep and bear arms for a well regulated militia.

I believe the right to keep and bear arms is an individual right.

Huh? How do you square those two? And I have found zero contemporaneous historical evidence that the 2nd can be interpreted as the first point. I'd like to see some text, either from the Federalist Papers or from letters/speeches by the Framers that they intended the 2nd to be a collectivist state right and that the word "people" in the 2nd has an entirely different meaning from the word "people" in the other amendments in the BOR.

86 posted on 07/30/2004 8:53:13 AM PDT by RogueIsland
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To: RogueIsland

Well said. I have read many many articles from law minds stating that the framers used "people" to mean THE PEOPLE and when referring to the State, always used STATE. I have a hard time understanding why libtards cannot grasp that simple fact.


90 posted on 07/30/2004 8:56:57 AM PDT by gunnygail (New video out 30 Jul 04: "It came from below, the REAL story of The Klintons!")
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