I believe the right to keep and bear arms is an individual right.
Huh? How do you square those two? And I have found zero contemporaneous historical evidence that the 2nd can be interpreted as the first point. I'd like to see some text, either from the Federalist Papers or from letters/speeches by the Framers that they intended the 2nd to be a collectivist state right and that the word "people" in the 2nd has an entirely different meaning from the word "people" in the other amendments in the BOR.
Well said. I have read many many articles from law minds stating that the framers used "people" to mean THE PEOPLE and when referring to the State, always used STATE. I have a hard time understanding why libtards cannot grasp that simple fact.