[aruanan]

The Bible and Homosexuality

There's no doubt in what it actually says on the topic; same for adultery, fornication (of any variety), murder, slander, etc.; even calling a Christian who doesn't provide for his family worse than an unbeliever. It's just that if A wants B and C says he cannot have it and A wants some aspect of C to make his life more palatable, then A has to come up with reasons to nullify C's injunction against B. Some of the more popular ones are:

1. Denial--C really doesn't say that at all.

2. Reinterpretation--C doesn't really mean that at all; the words were mis-translated.

3. Contextualization--C means that only in that particular sitz em leben, the Mosaic Law, but we as Christians aren't under that law but under grace where there is neither male or female and, so, it doesn't apply to us.

4. Redaction--these things said by C about B were obviously added by later editors or copyists in an attempt to justify some measure of control they were trying to impose on the religious establishment of their time and, so, we are justified in disposing of them so we can get back to the original text (this method was a favorite of Jefferson)

Strangely, though, the "original text" in 4. looks just like what they had set out to find in order for them to attempt to control the religious establishment of the present day.

[Sir Francis Dashwood]

3. Contextualization--C means that only in that particular sitz em leben, the Mosaic Law, but we as Christians aren't under that law but under grace where there is neither male or female and, so, it doesn't apply to us.

"If they do not listen to Moses and the Prophets, they will not be convinced even if someone rises fron the dead." (Luke 16:31)