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To: PetroniusMaximus
The I AM

Tut, tut. It was a trick question. Saying that the "I AM" came "before" presupposes the existence of time. It makes no sense to say that time came into existence after anything else. Try again.

75 posted on 02/16/2004 10:01:38 AM PST by Physicist (Sophie Rhiannon Sterner, born 1/19/2004: http://www.freerepublic.com/focus/f-chat/1061267/posts)
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To: Physicist
Isn't it interesting that God refers to Himself in the present tense. Not "I WAS" or "I WILL BE"

I think it's safe to assume that God exists in a state outside of time and outside of the physical universe - a state of being that just "is" and has no past of future.

Time brings with it the inevitable concept of change. Since God is perfect, and perfection can't change, then a perfect being would have no time-reference.

The Hebrews were quite clear that God is unchanging and perfect - interesting considering they may not have been able to conceptualize a state of "no-time" in our abstract 21st century ways.

All "time" is present to Him at once - He must look on the past, present and future as we would flip pages in a book.

I think of the universe as a created bubble in the no-time God state.
76 posted on 02/16/2004 10:30:41 AM PST by PetroniusMaximus
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