Posted on 01/21/2004 2:29:31 AM PST by Swordmaker
The placement of the sudarium is problematic. Why was it important enough to be mentioned in the Bible? Why did this seem to constitute more proof of the resurrection to the witnesses?
Some theorists take the position that Jesus's body was "teleported" out of the Shroud at the moment of resurrection. The energy of passing through the shroud is what creates the unique image, in their viewpoint. This does not answer the question of why the image is both ventral and dorsal... one would expect such a "transfer" would be unidirectional (and the image is collimated in the Z axis but in BOTH directions). One of those proposing this theory explains this by suggesting that at the moment of Jesus becoming "incorporeal" his body first sank partially through the cloth and into the rock ledge before changing direction and leaving upward. Inadvertently, Christ also teleports the chin binding with him... and when he rematerializes he removes it manually and drops it on the floor. The shroud is still in place, undisturbed, just no body home.
Another more likely scenario has Jesus just awakening after the resurrection, shrugging off the shroud, sitting up, disentangling his hands from the bonds keeping them together, then untying his feet, leaving both cloth strips entangled in the crumpled up shroud, standing up, and starting to walk out of the tomb when He realizes he still has the chin band around his face, so He pulls it off and tosses it down, away from the other grave cloths.
But the best answer is "We don't know."
Seems the most reasonable to me.
The only examples we have to draw from are those recorded in scripture of people that were brought back from the dead.
Teleportation was not anything I recall reading about.
For me it does not matter.
Proof either way will not change a single thing.
Well Jesus appeared in locked rooms...
Good point.
I'm quite comfortable calling that a miracle and not trying to explain how it might have taken place.
These are all interesting points and I enjoy reading about and commenting on them I just don't see that it has any real meaning or point beyond the joys of speculation.
Posting in Strong's number form does not help anyone who does not have access to a Strong's Greek Dictionary. I do. However, you have never pointed out the lack of conformity in the Greek words as I have. Therefore, you have not "posted" everything I asked.
Also, Race, the only question I did not answer in post 100 were the two about "swarthing", a word that does not exist, and whether you meant "swathing", a word which does exist.
As to posting the Koine Greek, the method I use is the same that Strong's Greek Dictionary and and many other Biblical Greek sites on the web use. Since many people do not have a Greek font set installed on their computer (I do) they have provided the Greek in an Anglicized (using the English Alphabet) version. That can be just cut and pasted like regular English postings. Give it a try.
By the way, Koine Greek was a dialect of Classic Greek that developed as a trade language during the 2nd, 1st Centuries BC, and the 1st Century AD. It is not Classical Greek as it contains many foreign words and usages. It is sort of like English today... composed of many borrowed words and phrases from other languages.
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