[GovernmentShrinker]

A mother has chosen by her own free will to undertake the acts of which pregnancy is a result - there is no compulsion to get pregnant.

Not necessarily. And when you rely on this, you are implying that if she became pregnant by means of rape of incest, then she should be free to have an abortion. But then that position doesn't square with the notion that an embryo or fetus is a full-fledged human person, entitled to protection at the expense of an unwilling mother.

[thoughtomator]

With regards to situations of rape and incest pregnancies: rape is indeed a special case, since the mother has not freely chosen the act that leads to the creation of new life. In the case of incest, this is not generally true, rather only where the incest is actually rape rather than consensual, in which case it would properly be considered under whatever solution is arrived at for rape-pregnancy.

Of the 45 million aborted pregnancies since Roe v. Wade, a very small number of them are actually due to rape. Since we are considering the general case, any modifications we find to be just in the case of a rape are not generally applicable, and are in fact a completely separate discussion.