You might go back and look at how slavery made its way into the Constitution in the first place. It was a compromise, offered to persuade the slave-holding states to ratify. IIRC, the northern states assumed that slavery was on its last legs anyway, so that the compromise would not have long-lasting effects. It was a poor assumption for which hundreds of thousands later died to rectify.
Pretty much everybody thought that.
Then came the cotton gin, King Cotton, slavery ordained in the Bible, and so forth.
Walt
Sure it was. But my question pertains to it being in there per se. It has been said that "Any nation that had slavery incorporated into its founding constitution was in no way correct." Slavery is indisputably contained in the US Constitution. Does that make the US Constitution "in no way correct"?