[HiTech RedNeck]

It clearly was a reference to Westerfield waging the terror upon Danielle.

If Feldman intended this, even in a slip-up, why wasn't there instantly a motion for a mistrial?

[Amore]

Because, as somebody already stated on this thread, it didn't occur at trial. It occurred during the sentencing hearng.

[Illbay]

Because the trial was over. This was in the penalty phase.

In other words, the conviction's there; let's drop the pretense, since we all know that he did it.

Just sickening.

[NYCVirago]

If Feldman intended this, even in a slip-up, why wasn't there instantly a motion for a mistrial?

Because it was after the trial was over!