Not really. I got into this thread by responding to claims of how the courts are taking fathers out of the family by pointing out that male behavior has a lot to do with it. That's all.
In effect, by obdurately failing to acknowledge this distinction, you are implicitly promoting the unsupported assumption that men who are being divorced by their wives are really no different or at least no less blameworthy in their actions than those who consort with unwed mothers and casually victimize women.
This blaming of all men for the actions of some is patently ridiculous, partly because it is really nothing but obfuscation in the final analysis, and assuming such absurdities can do nothing to help the situation.
Clearer now?