I have no problem with your equating France under Louis XVI, France under the Jacobins, France under de Gaulle or ( among the five "republiques" ) France under Macron. But I don't agree with the estimation.
"...their problem/their guilt" seems quite the methodological error in which you seem to delight. The Germans are only now coming to terms with two modern generations who have been fed "...their problem/their guilt."
But going that route leaves one with us conservatives being somehow "guilty" for the idiocies of Democrats, for which I as an American do not apologize nor do I believe the "Obama-Biden" version of America is something for which I accept "guilt." Nor do I accept the "guilt" as peddled by the NYT's 1619 bullshit.
I say that in 1802 prior to the Louisiana Purchase, slavery in French controlled territory was France's fault.
How does this lead to blame of conservatives? I do not understand. Who else should I be blaming besides France?
"But going that route leaves one with us conservatives being somehow "guilty" for the idiocies of Democrats, for which I as an American do not apologize nor do I believe the "Obama-Biden" version of America is something for which I accept "guilt." Nor do I accept the "guilt" as peddled by the NYT's 1619 bullshit."
How does an open admission that French slavery in French territory is France's fault, lead to conservatives are guilty?
I am clearly missing something. How does this even track?