Posted on 10/16/2023 6:45:59 AM PDT by ATOMIC_PUNK
I pray for israel
I pray for discernment and understanding. for all of us
I think that way back when the Romans over ran Judea and burned the Temple, they changed the name from Judea to Palestine...to punish the Jews.
In history since then, the Roman ‘misnomer’ has bounced back and forth until the place and its name became ‘Israel’, after WWII
I could be wrong
‘does the media read the bible.?’
maybe; anybody seen any cockatrices lately in the Gaza Strip...?
Yes, there was no “Palestine” in the days of Isaiah. So the word that is translated there is surely more like “Philistia”... land of the Philistines.
Right and ‘Philistine’ is STILL a term of derision. Meaning something like, barbaric, inhumane or uncultured.
Some things never change
2 Kings 8:12
“Why is my lord weeping?” asked Hazael. “Because I know the harm you will do to the Israelites,” he answered. “You will set fire to their fortified places, kill their young men with the sword, dash their little children to the ground, and rip open their pregnant women.”
The term “Peleset” (transliterated from hieroglyphs as P-r-s-t) is found in five inscriptions referring to a neighboring people, who are generally identified with the Philistines,[2] or their land Philistia, starting from circa 1150 BCE during the Twentieth Dynasty of Egypt. The first known mention is at the Medinet Habu temple which refers to the Peleset among those who fought against Egypt during Ramesses III’s reign,[3] and the last known is 300 years later on Padiiset’s Statue. The Assyrians called the same region “Palashtu/Palastu” or “Pilistu,” beginning with Adad-nirari III in the Nimrud Slab in c. 800 BCE through to an Esarhaddon treaty more than a century later.[4][5] Neither the Egyptian nor the Assyrian sources provided clear regional boundaries for the term.[6]
The term “Palestine” first appeared in the 5th century BCE when the ancient Greek historian Herodotus wrote of a “district of Syria, called Palaistinê” between Phoenicia and Egypt in The Histories.[7] Herodotus provides the first historical reference clearly denoting a wider region than biblical Philistia, as he applied the term to both the coastal and the inland regions such as the Judean Mountains and the Jordan Rift Valley.[8][9][10][11] Later Greek writers such as Aristotle, Polemon and Pausanias also used the word, which was followed by Roman writers such as Ovid, Tibullus, Pomponius Mela, Pliny the Elder, Dio Chrysostom, Statius, Plutarch as well as Roman Judean writers Philo of Alexandria and Josephus.[12] There is not currently evidence of the name on any Hellenistic coin or inscription.[13]
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Timeline_of_the_name_Palestine
“I think that way back when the Romans over ran Judea and burned the Temple, they changed the name from Judea to Palestine...to punish the Jews.”
——————-
Actually, the name of the Roman province called Judea was changed to Philistia starting around the year 135, after the unsuccessful Bar Kockba revolt. This was done to punish the Jews, by naming their very land after their ancient enemy, the philistines. Philistia has, over the ensuing, centuries, been bastardized to Palestine.
Question: When Jesus, Mary and Joseph fled to Egypt to escape Herod, was it to Gaza?
Also, there is no way that the z prophet Isaiah would have referred to “Palestine” some 800 years before the Romans began using a term that sounds like it. This is one of many mistranslations of the Hebrew Bible that occur in the Christian version.
Cockatrices are a symbol of Victorian Britain. See: British mandate.
Many presume Alexandria, where there was a colony of hundreds of thousands (some sources say well over a million Jews). However, the Orthodox and Coptic (Egyptian) Christians believe it to have been in Abu Serga, in Cairo. Perhaps there were too many people too well connected with Herod in Alexandria. Intriguingly, however, Gaza was not part of Judea, but even then was a tiny strip of land densely packed with Philistines. They were neither Egyptian nor Arag, however, but likely Greek.
IIRC the Philistines were an offshoot of Greeks who had moved to the land of Canaan. Through their interaction with both the people groups of Canaan and with the Greeks, they taught Greece (and thus Rome and Europe) the concept of a written language based on sounds (phonetic language). Thus by days of the Roman Empire, the Philistines became synonymous with the land of Canaan in general. And the people who had been there before became known as the Phonecians.
Thanks for pointing this out. We need to start calling these people by their real name, Philistines.
I was telling my daughter that the other day. They were the “bad guys” of the Old Testament. No one wanted them around.
It was referred to as Palestina.
I was just checking out if translating “Philistia” (the Pentapolis which existed roughly in Gaza during Isaiah’s time) as “Palestine” was reasonable, when I made a remarkable discovery:
Palistin was a province of Assyria along the Northern coast of Syria. Israel was lumped in with Syria by the Romans.
Well, it’s a pretty good speculation they were Greeks, but it’s not 100% known. They were one of the “Sea Peoples” whose exact origin is still subject to debate. But probably that they were Greek, likely warriors who went on to live as pirates and mercenaries after the Trojan War seems their most likely origin.
very roughly ...
the ancient Philistines were a separate people and during the rise of the Israel remained independent.
Following the division of Israel, and then Israel’s being taken away in captivity, various empires to the north of Israel dominated both Israel and Gaza; this continued even after the return of Israel.
Come the Roman period, Rome displaced the Arab and Persian rulers, and ruled both Israel and Gaza; this continued through the 2nd Jewish Revolt and the dispersion of the Jews, and into the Byzantine (or, Eastern Roman) period.
Upon the rise of Islam, various Muslim empires (or, Caliphates) ruled both Israel and Gaza, with brief interruption by Crusaders.
Eventually, the Ottomans ruled (approx. from the 15th Century to WWI).
The Brits ruled the region from 1918 to 1946 (from the end of WWI to the end of WWII).
In 1947, Israel declared independence, and Egypt ruled Gaza.
In 1967, Israel turned back Arab invaders and gained control of Gaza and the Sinai from Egypt
In 1973, Israel returned the Sinai to Egypt, but Egypt refused to accept Gaza.
In 2005, Israel withdrew from Gaza. At the time, it was hoped that the people of Gaza would form a democratic government and busy themselves with building up their economy, etc. Some even thought Gaza would become the Arab Riviera, with tourists attracted to its beaches on the Mediterranean.
But, no, the majority in Gaza wanted war, not peace. They reject the two-state solution and want to drive the Jews into the sea like the Arabs tried to do three times. The only difference, now, is that the people of Gaza depend on the Shi’a Muslims of ancient Persia, present day Iran, instead of relying on their fellow Arabs who are mostly Sunni.
Gaza has been a lawless, barbaric place since the time of the judges. Hence, the Biblical story of Samson and Delilah. Nobody wants them, or should want them.
Their rejection of the law of war, for example, in their slaughter of civilians, means they aren’t covered by the law of war. They are a piratical people and are subject to summary judgment, including annihilation as a people.
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