Would it not have been possible that Trump could have by Executive Order mandated HCQ and Ivermectin be available to those who wanted them? If jabs and lockdowns could be mandated and “right to try” allowed would it have been possible to override states and others who objected? Just a question.
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I don’t know the limits or purview of executive orders; from my limited understanding they have to be in line with existing law, which since he did that “right to try” thing (EO? don’t know), it seems that legally he should have been able to do that. If he could have done that, and we know he did not, I can thank of a couple of reasons. 1. He likely had no actual health advisors who weren’t the enemy, but he did promote HCQ and was practically crucified for that, and was blamed for that woman murdering her husband with clorox. I don’t know when the utility of Ivermectin first surfaced.
One thing definitely, during his first term he was being attacked in so many ways, via “legal” and extra-legal, including assassination attempts.
President Trump may have believed that IVM and HCQ were covered under The Right To Try Act. I read a newspaper story about a woman 2-3 days from a covid death in Batavia, New York. Her lawyer went before a judge and used that Act as the basis for demanding that his client be given IVM, since she was going to die anyway. They had to per the judge’s order and she walked out of the hospital within a week. Others who could have used the Act either didn’t know about it or got rogue judges who refused to allow it.