You must be reading people other than me. I explain the origins of the term whenever the topic is brought up.
I do wish to make a quibble here. A lot of people that say "two parents" have no grasp of the reality of the 1787 time period. When a woman got married, she automatically acquired the allegiance of her husband. What I mean by this is only the father of children mattered. If he was a citizen of the US or a Subject of England, his children were automatically citizens or subjects regardless of where his wife was from.
Or the fact that the Framers left no record that they changed the meaning of the term that they grew up with.
You mean other than the fact that they deliberately stopped using the word "subject" (the normal English law based term) and started using the word "Citizen"? (The meaning of which came from Switzerland)
Look up Jefferson's draft of the Declaration of Independence. Researchers show that he originally wrote the word "subject", but then erased it and wrote "citizen" over the top of it.
Who are you, then, that we should ever have taken notice of your writings on this subject?
Or did you simply make a fly-over country grammatical error above?