If its not an even exchange, then it could be money laundering. There has been no details about that. However if it was laundering the conversion direction is incorrect. It was said in the article Ukraine gave FTX crypto. Is that in dispute? If not, then the supposed fraud would then be FTX giving that crytpo to democrats? What is the Dems going to do with Crpyto? They need cash. For this to play out the Dems would then need to convert the crytpo they got from FTX into cash. Is that spelled out anywhere?
A true laundering scheme would be Ukraine giving FTX cash and FTX not giving back the full value back to Ukraine in crypto. The difference would be sent to democrats by FTX. Now your talking laundering. But the article doesnt say the direction went that way. But some here want it to be so.
Its not being obtuse. It called examining the supposed scheme piece bt piece and seeing if it fits. It doesnt.
Nossir, "money laundering" is the act of concealing the source of funds. It is always a one-for-one even exchange, that consists of three phases: Placement, Layering, and Extraction.
A true laundering scheme would be Ukraine giving FTX cash and FTX not giving back the full value back to Ukraine in crypto.
Nossir, that would be fraud (depending how the fraudster represented the trade) or even outright theft.
If you don't even know what money laundering is, versus fraud/theft, then I suggest you stay heads-down in code. I wouldn't even trust you as a Business Liason or Scrum Master.
Oh, I misspoke! Money laundering is not ALWAYS a one-for-one exchange. In many cases, a 50% loss of value is acceptable to the launderer as a ‘cost of doing business’.
So the exact opposite of what you say is true. Money-launderers do not pull out extra money, they often pull out LESS.
However, I would not call this a money-laundering operation. It is apparent it is a Racketeering operation in violation of American RICO laws.