Curious about a legal point here, if the defense counsel thinks his client isn't mentally competent to stand trial, why is his client capable of entering his own plea?
Couldn't defense counsel move to have a psychiatric examination with or without his client's approval?
Curious about a legal point here, if the defense counsel thinks his client isn't mentally competent to stand trial, why is his client capable of entering his own plea? According to the article, he went through a months long psychological exam and was found to be mentally competent. At that point, what his attorneys think about his competency is irrelevant.