Do we have any evidence it's more common than before the vaccines? Or is this just more evidence-free anti-vax scaremongering?
Fair question.
Did you ever read of SADS before Covid? Yes, I know that it existed, but did you ever read about it?
That said, it boils down to what one chooses to believe, because we are not getting, and will never get the truth from TPTB regarding pretty much anything associated with Covid. So much has been hyped and fabricated on this by the fear mongers that separating facts from propaganda is impossible.
It is a given they are fiddling with the stats to hide fake vax problems. So, one is naturally going to wonder how far that fiddling goes. When one is dealing with people that have no moral qualms about lying to further their goals, it is only common sense to assume anything they say, or don't say, is suspect.
The totalitarian hammer that has come down on anyone who has asked legitimate questions about research and testing on the drugs, or the fascist hand of government blocking ANY treatment of which it demonizes, has to make all of this suspect.
If you've ever had to deal with pathological liars, and I have, you get to where you go outside and see for yourself if they say that the sun is out at high noon.
It is difficult to prove when the incidence was 0.0001% before the Vaxx, and 0.001% after the Vaxx - and when you have to control for ten thousand other factors.
Regards,