[DiogenesLamp]

Have you ever considered why Calvin's case was decided the way it was?

I mean, have you ever considered what would have happened had it been decided the other way?

I have, and it leads me to conclude that the case was decided on the basis of what the King needed, and not so much on the basis of what was actually true.

It's my understanding that England originally had the Roman law version of "subject", but at some point in their history, they solidified behind Jus Soli.

Why?

[DiogenesLamp]

Would like to get your take on Calvin’s case.