My wife contracted Covid in December ‘20 after a family trip to Tennessee. She had the real symptoms... strong headache, loss of smell, taste, etc. And pink eye. All before getting tested.
I had a headache and “pink eye” at the same time as her symptoms presented, which both cleared up for me within a day of taking over-the-counter drops and Motrin.
This was a few weeks after she gave birth, and while I was also on extended vacation and paternity leave. Said to myself, now’s the best time for me to get it too. Didn’t do anything to avoid it while around her.
During my annual physical last month, I asked if they could test my labs for Covid antibodies. Test came back negative.
My tin foil hat says... She was the only one tested last December, when the pharma/govt incentive was to find more cases (legitimate in her case). In my case, the pharma/govt incentive was to find I have no antibodies so that I need the vax.
But the pink eye for both of us leads me to suspect we both had it. Her sense of smell and taste has still not recovered. She had a constant headache for months. I may have had a mild case or been more naturally resistant. I don’t trust the tests, either, at this point.
Same with my family - only with reversed roles.
I (60 years old) definitely got the Covid - classic symptoms. Our family physician came to our house and stood in our front yard to administer the tests. The findings came back to reveal that I was positive, while my wife (44) and son (12) were not.
How can it NOT be transmitted when you sleep in the same bed, drink out of the same water glass, or enjoy "conjugal relations" with someone?
Regards,