Bullshit. I've concluded there's no evidence of a higher all-cause mortality rate in the 10-59 age group in the UK.
You said the footnote "explicitly explains why the numbers look the way they do." Can you elaborate on that, because it's not "explicitly" clear to me?
Your problem.
It's high school level logic which has been explained to you several times.
And yet, the footnote is attributing this group as the cause for the mortality increase (and probably the 50-54 band, too).
Ah, assuming good faith on your part I see you don't understand the footnote.
Well, I can't explain it any more simply than I already have so we should probably both move on to another thread.
-PJ