Some mortal side-effects must be included in the number of deaths in the interim period after the 1st vaccination, but the mortality is still lower than the unvaccinated death rate. But as I have written a number of times when discussing an earlier data set from the UK, when looking at the effect on mortality caused by COVID-19 (and the vaccines) one must differ between the elderly and younger people. In the age corrected data for the whole population there in all likelihood hides a large positive effect for the elderly, and possibly a none- or even negative effect for the younger persons).
What is a bit strange is that they define the same period after the 2nd dose, but do not give any data for the period between 0 and 21 days post 2nd dose vaccination. Do they include all deaths directly after the 2nd dose or is there a hiatus where deaths are not counted??
Another statistical problem is the report from Germany showing that the percentage of vaccinated people correlate positively (sic!) with the excess mortality. This means, if true, that the vaccine kills more people than it protects.
However, it is a weird data set. There are two states that cause this correlation - remove them and you receive a stronger negative correlation. Now if one looks at the time the period the comparisons where made and the COVID-19 infection rates in the various German states, it is obvious that the new infection wave spread to the two formerly East-German states of Saxony and Thuringen latest of them all (despite low vaccination rates!) - later than the last week of the comparisons. Is the higher excess death rate in the more heavily vaccinated states due to the earlier rise in COVID-cases? I don't know, but one would have wished that the authors had discussed this.