From the absrtact in this autopsy:
"A previously symptomless 86-year-old man received the first dose of the BNT162b2 mRNA COVID-19 vaccine. He died 4 weeks later from acute renal and respiratory failure. Although he did not present with any COVID-19-specific symptoms, he tested positive for SARS-CoV-2 before he died. Spike protein (S1) antigen-binding showed significant levels for immunoglobulin (Ig) G, while nucleocapsid IgG/IgM was not elicited."
Note carefully in that statement -
Although he did not present with any COVID-19-specific symptoms, he tested positive for SARS-CoV-2 before he died. Spike protein (S1) antigen-binding showed significant levels for immunoglobulin (Ig) G, while nucleocapsid IgG/IgM was not elicited
I am not a doctor, nor am I qualified to certify any conclusions from autopsies, however I HAVE accumulated a considerable amount of common sense understanding of important differences in various Covid-19 tests.
see https://freerepublic.com/focus/f-chat/3991215/posts
Now directly to the point of this autopsy
he tested positive for SARS-CoV-2 before he died. Spike protein (S1) antigen-binding showed significant levels for immunoglobulin (Ig) G
That specific test is positive precisely because he had been vaccinated. That test is actually designed to evaluate the presence of antibodies to the spike protein generated as a result of the mRNA vaccines.
while nucleocapsid IgG/IgM was not elicited
The fact that this test was negative is very simple proof that he had NOT been infected with Covid-19. (the nucleocapsid test is precisely designed to test for antibodies to the Covid-19 virus itself, and deliberately does NOT test for antibodies to the spike protein generated by the vaccine .
In my opinion, this death was probably caused by the vaccine, and was actually not related at all to natural infection from Covid-19
I suggest this is very strong evidence that this vaccine is extremely dangerous for some people.
Furthermore, serious critical review by competent scientists MUST be completed ASAP to resolve this very obvious question.
Thanks, Gramps.
This has been around for a while. Why do we continue to resurrect it?
Jab old people—nothing could possibly go wrong....
wrong....
wrong....
wrong....
The only way they are jabbing me is if they find my corpse.
“while nucleocapsid IgG/IgM was not elicited”
You are right, normally one develops multiple antibodies to the nucleocapsid, so if it were the virus those antibodies would be present.
“On day 18, he was admitted to hospital for worsening diarrhea. Since he did not present with any clinical signs of COVID-19, isolation in a specific setting did not occur. Laboratory testing revealed hypochromic anemia and increased creatinine serum levels. Antigen test and polymerase chain reaction (PCR) for SARS-CoV-2 were negative”
One statement/test result doesn’t jive with the other. Those who would use this as an example of NOT a case of ‘vaccine’ reaction require others to suspend disbelief.
“systemic arterial hypertension, chronic venous insufficiency”
Yeah, for those with heart problems, adverse events (like death) from vaccination rise from a 1 in a hundred thousand likelihood to more like a one in ten thousand likelihood.
Of course the likelihood of a serious (like death) result from covid is much higher.
Thanks for that analysis!
I know on that IgG IgM test, one can have a positive IgG by itself, a positive IgM by itself, and both IgG and IgM positive together, depending on when one was infected.
And either the positive IgG by itself or positive IgM by itself isn’t usually seen; I forget which one is unusual.
You are right. you are not a doctor. He died of pneumonia and kidney failure not a vaccine
His Roommate tested positive the day before he did too. He caught it in the hospital. They had the same variant.