What I posted was a reasoned question and if you are referring to the above longer post it was entirely data driven. I am sorry you don’t like the fact that this article is entirely damaging to a very strongly held narrative
Ad hominem, I think...
The article is damning to one study.
I want to make sure I understand this correctly....
If there is a study that is positive in regard to Ivermectin which later gets proven false, that means conclusively that Ivermectin is not effective? Is that right?
How about if there is a study that is negative to Hydroxychloroquine which is later proven false? Does that mean conclusively that Hydroxychloroquine IS effective?
I want to make sure I am getting the logic right.