Mariner wrote “Remove the female vote and there would not be a Democrat in any office of the country.” Note that the context was today, not a hundred years ago.
You replied “Absolutely untrue. The base of the Democratic Party has always been white left-wing males.”
Your own words state that Mariner’s remarks where untrue. Therefore any objective reader understands that you meant ALWAYS, including the present day. Had you written something like “had traditionally been white left-wing males” that might be different.
Of course that raises the question. Were there really any left-wing white males in the Democratic Party in 1920. Most would have been socials, communists, or perhaps anarchists. So your defense doesn’t really stand up to scrutiny.
What you like to rephrase your post 16?
Presumption of anachronistic context. Women have had the vote for almost 101 years; have they been voting Republican as a large block before our current era? What was different about the voting patterns of Americans at large because of the Nineteenth Amendment? Did it significantly increase the Democratic advantage back then as well as now? Seems to me that 2016 revealed something very different from what the liberal media outlets are pushing on the public with respect to women and their voting patterns.
Why is this matter seemingly to you like an itch you cannot reach?