Spain was neutral in The War to End All Wars.
Every other country regarded the outbreak as a state secret, so that no enemy would know their fighting ability had been degraded.
Spain ‘gets the credit’ because they were honest, the only reports of the outbreak had Spanish datelines. There’s a life’s lesson in there somewhere....
null and void wrote: “Spain ‘gets the credit’ because they were honest, the only reports of the outbreak had Spanish datelines. There’s a life’s lesson in there somewhere....”
It’s also possible that the SF could have originated in some obscure portion of the world without good reporting. It’s very true that the first reports were from Spain. Woodrow Wilson imposed restraints on the US that would now be considered gross violations of civil rights. Yet he is a hero to the progressives.
here’s an interesting article on
the origins and ‘patient zero’ of the spanishs flu:
https://www.findagrave.com/memorial/21935798/albert-martin-gitchell
https://www.findagrave.com/memorial/21935798/albert-martin-gitchell
The last paragraph gives his information: “PS: Albert Gitchell had no inkling, I am sure, that he was Patient Zero. Anyway, he was not Patient Zero. Because Patient Zero was a construction. And because Albert just wasn’t Patient Zero. The Opie medical commission the army sent to Camp Funston in July 1918 reported that the same disease had been endemic at the camp since it opened the previous September.*”
That information severely undermines the premise of the original post, ie, that the spanish flu was a bacterial infection resulting from a pneumonia vaccine. As this article states: “In January 1918, vaccines were administered to soldiers at Ft. Riley, Kansas.” Rather difficult for a vaccine administered in Jan 1918 to cause infections in September 1917 isn’t it?