[jmclemore]

Re. #2 - so if as a result of fraud, the Democrats manage to pack the courts, add states and ram all manner of evil down our throats, this is completely inconsequential to the courts? It’s not a matter of what any given state WANTS, it’s about upholding the rule of law.

If a state violates its own election laws and its own constitution, then its election result just cannot stand.

Upholding which law? The Constitution gives state legislatures the authority to make laws governing the election rules of their state. To say it correctly, the constitution gives the state legislature the authority as to how the electors of their state are selected. You as a voter do not vote for president. Your vote is for electors.... But wait there's more. While your vote is for electors, the electors are still chosen by the state legislature.

Armed with that nasty bit of information - try stepping before SCOTUS, State SC, or any court and try to argue your rights as a vote in the presidential election were violated. Even better, try and argue the your rights as a voter for electors were violated.. According to the constitution, you have no right to vote for either... and that is the disgusting reality

If a voter in their own state lacks standing, then nor do other states or their voters have standing.

This is why we are seeing SCOTUS and State SCs dropping cases for a lack of standing.

For elections to work the way we expected, would require a constitutional amendment - But that would also mean taking the authority for selecting electors from state legislatures. I would suggest keeping the electoral college, mandate that every states electors be chosen proportionally by popular vote of voters who are US citizens, registered to vote and residents of the state they are voting in.

[mbj]

> Upholding which law? The Constitution gives
> state legislatures

Didn’t Pennsylvania violate its own constitution on how to run an election? And then, when the (GOP) legislature wanted to step in, didn’t the state governor refuse to allow them to convene? (Or am I mixing up states in my mind? Very possible)

I’m far from opposed to the state legislatures from operating according to the constitution, but it seems like they may have been prevented from doing so...or am I mistaken?

OK, so maybe I myself as a citizen have no direct right to vote. BUT it seems like another state should still require that another state act in accordance with, and consistent their own constitution - at least when it comes to a national election election. Other states and their citizens can be harmed when a state or group of states fails to uphold their own laws.

I do wish for the current electoral college to remain; it seems to be the fairest way (in spite of its quirks) to ensure equity.