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SCOTUS; WTH Hell "Standing"?
Vanity ^ | December 11, 2020 | myself

Posted on 12/11/2020 5:32:22 PM PST by Michael.SF.

OK, Texas has been shot down on the basis of "Lack of standing"

As I understand the term, it refers to anyone or any case that a court simply does not want to take on; Thus they kick the can down the road.

Can a person, one far more knowledgeable of the law than I, explain this term and how it can be used or abused?

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TOPICS: Conspiracy; Miscellaneous
KEYWORDS: stupidvanity
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To: Michael.SF.
Standing means you have to have been injured. It can't be hypothetical or happen to someone else, exception 1st amendment issues. Injury can be exactly that, a physical injury. It can be a monetary injury. It can be loss of business, or lies about you IF they damage you. That is part of the reason why liable, slander and defamation are hard cases to bring, because you have to show the injury and the injury is hard to prove. Hurt feelings do not give you standing. Standing can be defined by traditional common law (judge made law/precedent [hey we decided this in the past so it's ok to do now]) or by code. The legislature at the national level can define it, IF it is an explicit or implied in the Constitution AND it is necessary and proper. Otherwise, this is done at the state level. The state legislatures decide if you can sue for something depending upon the injury. For example, emotional distress has been written into Tort law in many states. But the states decide what the injury must be and you must be all the definitions (elements). Another example would be stand your ground laws. People breaking into someone's house can't sue in most states if they are shot, because under Common law torts, you can't claim injury when committing an illegal act, and many states deny standing via statute with castle doctrine. Furthermore, to have standing, you must have a grievance the court can remedy. If there is no remedy, whether in equity (doing what is fair) or in law (compensating monetarily for the wrong done) the court can say you have no standing. In political controversies, the remedy (voting, recall, Amendments and legislative remedies) are beyond the ability of the court to use. If this is the solution, the court will reject the case as well.
101 posted on 12/11/2020 9:46:11 PM PST by GeorgianaCavendish (All animals are equal, but some animals are more equal than others....)
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To: Svartalfiar

He may not, even, either. However, he could show more personal, and direct harm to him, than Texas could to Texas. He could also better identify what was was already lost to him, which are the votes in his name, not being counted correctly, which Texas wasn’t involved in. The issue for him personally is he probably can’t actually enjoin a state to state complaint as a person. As I said, I am not a lawyer and think this is a horrible decision that they could have easily and rightfully agreed to at least hear. Just giving my understanding of how lawyers might look at it.


102 posted on 12/11/2020 9:55:59 PM PST by Golden Eagle (********** MERRY CHRISTMAS ***********)
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To: tarpit

So President Trump would be the only one with standing?


103 posted on 12/11/2020 10:34:40 PM PST by Irish Eyes
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To: Svartalfiar
I think this is the right one, but I could be wrong.

"We have consistently held that a plaintiff raising only a generally available grievance about government-claiming only harm to his and every citizen's interest in proper application of the constitution and laws, and seeking relief that no more directly and tangibly benefits him than it does the public atlarge-does not state an Article III case or controversy" source

104 posted on 12/11/2020 10:37:02 PM PST by tarpit
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To: Irish Eyes

Maybe at the lower court, but not at SCOTUS. From what I understand SCOTUS is an appellate court and there are very few possible cases that are original jurisdiction (meaning that they start directly at SCOTUS). State v state is one of them. So Texas vs PA et al had to be a state v state complaint in order to go directly to SCOTUS. After it was put on the docket, then Trump could request to join. If he was a party at the start, then it would not have even been considered. That is why when the denied the request for leave to file, there was essentially no case (bill of complaint) for Trump to be a granted the right to be a party to. His request became moot.


105 posted on 12/11/2020 10:41:57 PM PST by tarpit
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To: tarpit

Thanks for the answer


106 posted on 12/11/2020 11:31:19 PM PST by Irish Eyes
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To: Michael.SF.

bookmark


107 posted on 12/12/2020 12:37:47 AM PST by GOP Poet (Super cool you can change your tag line EVERYTIME you post!! :D. (Small things make me happy))
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To: The Antiyuppie

Robert Barnes
@Barnes_Law

FYI: the entire doctrine of “standing” was invented by courts this last century as a way to play preferential Pontius Pilate, washing their hands of cases they don’t want responsibility for.

https://pdfs.semanticscholar.org/dfbd/14305d0a07a25975a0960c3f297eddd42367.pdf

10:46 PM · Dec 11, 2020·Twitter Web App
https://twitter.com/Barnes_Law/status/1337604758576615425


108 posted on 12/12/2020 1:21:46 AM PST by Right_in_Virginia ( )
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To: tarpit

Sorry... they are wrong. Disputes between states brought directly to SCOTUS are given standing automatically. The SCOTUS cannot deny the dispute and must hear the case on it’s merits.

The 4 vote SCOTUS rule is procedural doctrine. It does not have relevance in this situation.

The states have a right of redress before SCOTUS for the simple fact they are participating member sovereigns joined by contract of voluntary act... and need not prove standing in the pursuit of constitutional adjudication in the eyes of SCOTUS where the issue is national in its argument. SCOTUS has no authority to deny action to judge.


109 posted on 12/12/2020 2:12:19 AM PST by Bellagio
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To: The Antiyuppie

“Maybe it would be easier if some person with legal knowledge could tell us who actually HAS standing in the case of election fraud. No one?

So, if someone shoots and kills someone else, can the defense claim that the prosecution has no standing because they were not impacted, and the victim is dead?”

That’s basically what these courts have all said.


110 posted on 12/12/2020 6:19:49 AM PST by CodeToad (Arm Up! They Have!)
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To: Golden Eagle
He may not, even, either. However, he could show more personal, and direct harm to him, than Texas could to Texas. He could also better identify what was was already lost to him, which are the votes in his name, not being counted correctly, which Texas wasn’t involved in. The issue for him personally is he probably can’t actually enjoin a state to state complaint as a person. As I said, I am not a lawyer and think this is a horrible decision that they could have easily and rightfully agreed to at least hear. Just giving my understanding of how lawyers might look at it.

But if he doesn't, then who does have standing? States don't, candidates don't, voters don't, who is left? If no one has standing, then no suit could ever be brought, so how can it be fixed? What's to stop every single party in every precinct in every State from stuffing every ballot box? If no one's going to solve the election fraud, then every election going forward simply turns in to who can cheat the most!
111 posted on 12/12/2020 6:34:24 AM PST by Svartalfiar
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To: tarpit

I’m on my phone and can’t read the pdf link - is it a particular court case?

But either way, how is that a Constitutional argument? If a law is bad but it hurts everyone the same, no one can argue against it? Every citizen subject to a particular law, whether it directly affects them or not, should have standing to challenge the legality of said law. The fact that the law applies to you should be all it takes. And every law should apply to everyone equally, correct?


112 posted on 12/12/2020 6:40:33 AM PST by Svartalfiar
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To: God_Country_Trump_Guns
Thank you.

I would think though that Texas is damaged as they were denied the President they voted for, because of the illegal actions in another state.

Well, two our seven thought the case had merit, so there is some validity to that point, just not enough.

113 posted on 12/12/2020 7:35:36 AM PST by Michael.SF. (I believe you Tony B.)
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To: LibertarianLiz

Kicked it over the cliff?


114 posted on 12/12/2020 7:39:36 AM PST by Michael.SF. (I believe you Tony B.)
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To: Cboldt
Courts use this to duck and to take cases

That is an honest assessment.

115 posted on 12/12/2020 7:42:03 AM PST by Michael.SF. (I believe you Tony B.)
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To: CodeToad

LOL. And that is a blunt assessment!


116 posted on 12/12/2020 7:43:01 AM PST by Michael.SF. (I believe you Tony B.)
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To: Svartalfiar
What's to stop every single party in every precinct in every State from stuffing every ballot box? If no one's going to solve the election fraud, then every election going forward simply turns in to who can cheat the most!

That is the obvious logical conclusion. The only remaining question is, to what extremes people will go to in order to justify their desired result.

This is yet to play out, completely, however. More votes, such as electoral votes, haven’t even been counted. And maybe after more things happen, including the election finally being decided, and more fraud being uncovered, then more accurate lists of actual damages and to whom can be determined.

Bottom line it was still a total cop out by he SCOTUS. They lost all respect from many, who once saw them as heroes. There may be a chance for them yet, but after this I won’t put my faith for justice in them again.

117 posted on 12/12/2020 7:55:20 AM PST by Golden Eagle (********** MERRY CHRISTMAS ***********)
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To: Michael.SF.

In order to have standing, you have to show direct injury.

IF a law infringes on a Hindu’s religious freedom, Christians have no standing to sue, because their injury is not direct. Sure, an argument can be made that as a consequence of this law, Christians are denied the kind of government they are guaranteed under the First Amendment. But that injury is too remote to give them standing. Otherwise, anyone can have standing in Federal court because a law or an executive act denies him the kind of government they wanted.

My explanation is a bit of oversimplification, but it encapsulates a HUGE body of law and precedent. The TX lawsuit was frivolous on its face.

Actually, the two conservative judges did NOT say that TX had standing. My interpretation of the cryptic two-sentence opinion is this:

Since the SCOTUS has original jurisdiction to hear a lawsuit between two states, when one state asks to submit a complaint against another state, SCOTUS must grant that request. And “I would therefore grant the motion to file the bill of complaint but would not grant other relief.”

In other words, they would have let TX file a complaint but they would have have ordered the defendant states to reverse their election results.

I have said elsewhere, extensively, that this was a totally frivolous lawsuit, and it was filed just to appease and placate us, and everyone who piled onto this lawsuit was doing it just for show and to deceive us.


118 posted on 12/12/2020 8:42:39 AM PST by God_Country_Trump_Guns
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To: God_Country_Trump_Guns
An alternate interpretation.

Supreme Court Cites Bullshit Dodge "Lack of Standing" to Dismiss Texas Case

The ultimate Friday Night News Dump: The Constitution is repealed; America is no longer a democratic republic.

"Standing" is a doctrine without much rigor. Judges find standing when they want to take a case, and don't find it when they want to bury a case.

Update: Jenna Ellis and Rudy Giuliani on Newsmax (of course) at 8pm.

JennaEllisEsq

Mayor @RudyGiuliani and I will join @stinchfield1776 on @newsmax at 8pm ET.

The Supreme Court decided to bury the Texas lawsuit.


The high court refused to take up the lawsuit filed Monday by Texas Attorney General Ken Paxton that took aim at the election results in Pennsylvania, Michigan, Georgia and Wisconsin.

"Texas has not demonstrated a judicially cognizable interest in the manner in which another State conducts its elections. All other pending motions are dismissed as moot," the court said in an unsigned order.

...

But Justice Samuel Alito, joined by Justice Clarence Thomas, said the court does "not have discretion to deny the filing of a bill of complaint in a case that falls within our original jurisdiction. I would therefore grant the motion to file the bill of complaint but would not grant other relief, and I express no view on any other issue."

Yes, that's true: The Court has no discretion to not take the case. The Constitution says they must take it.

But whatever, I guess the Constitution is a tax now or something.

Deep State gotta Deep State.



119 posted on 12/12/2020 8:53:43 AM PST by Bratch
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To: God_Country_Trump_Guns
I have said elsewhere, extensively, that this was a totally frivolous lawsuit

Yes, we know, brand new freeper. You’ve spent your every breath trying to discourage us, and insult our intelligence. Obviously, it’s not working, as you’ve been exposed as a Judas, at best.

Either support those who are fighting the fight, or come up with some new creative angles to start new fronts. Simply sitting back and backstabbing everyone, while telling us how smart you supposedly are, in your apparent plan to surrender, is not of righteous intent.

You should change your handle to ME as the first word, not our heavenly Father.

120 posted on 12/12/2020 8:54:49 AM PST by Golden Eagle (********** MERRY CHRISTMAS ***********)
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