I accept this about the numbers, but WHY?...why would number “1” have a 30% chance of occurring over the other numbers.
There is a complicated mathematical proof for this.
But just a simpler way of thinking about is that because the higher counts is always less likely than the lower counts. And the lower the count, the more likely for the count to start with 1.
For example If the count is between 1-100, then the chances are equal for the leading digit to be 1 thru 9, but if the count is anywhere between 1-199, then 1 suddenly because the by far the most likely, 2 does does match 1 unless the count is between 1-299, and so on and so forth, 9 doesn’t get to even it’s odds until the count is from 1-999. And 1 get to flips the odds again in it’s favor on all counts from 1-1999, and so on ao so forth.
So the first digit is always the most likely and each digit in decreasing likelihood.
Unless people are making up numbers because when they are making it up, when they do all digits are more equally likely and you deviance from Benford’s law.