Did the state legislature provide him with this power? Is it reasonable or an infringement on the rights of voters including one man one vote?
I didn’t say the governor was legally entitled to do this—that’s up to the courts, and it smells bad to me.
In the short term, governors are dictators, subject to court restraint after the fact.
What bothers me about the post is that the governor appears to be making in person votes provisional. Is it to check against prior mail-ins to combat vote fraud? Doubtful in NJ. But, the part which got my attention was “instructing voters to leave parts of the ballot blank.”
What parts? WTF?