No but the difference was that the Spanish flu struck the young while COVID-19 is deadly for the elderly and if you're under 50, you're not at risk unless you have an underlying condition
No, but here is the clincher, at least for me.
Even if your not presenting symptoms of an underlying condition, covid-19 may very well bring them to the surface.
For instance, a patient in his mid 40’s, throwing off 100’s of clots, who might never have developed those symptoms, dies of some thrombotic event, but for covid-19. Does that death count as covid or death from a pre-existing condition. Even though they never had signs or symptoms beforehand.
I personally would rather not find out if I have some underlying condition, givin the right conditions (Covid)that takes me out.