Yesterday he said it was because of the corruption in the Ukrainian government. Changing his story isn't helping.
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I don't see these two answers as mutually exclusive. I can see withholding military aid because a) corruption is sapping the funds from the Ukraine that should go to defense and b)therefore the Ukraine isn't paying its fair share
But that's not what he's saying now. He's saying is withheld funds because Europe wasn't kicking in enough. Yesterday it was because of corruption.
But his complaint is now with the other European countries that arent contributing.
What did he expect Ukraine to do about that?